Monday, February 15, 2010

Acute Care Nurse Practitioner: Exam Sample Questions

www.nursecredentialing.org/NurseSpecialties/AcuteCareNP.aspx
test.nursecredentialing.org/AcuteNP-Mar2010Test.htm
______________________________________________________
www.testprepreview.com/nursing_certifications.htm
www.testprepreview.com/acutecare_np.htm
_____________________________________________________
Acute Care Nurse Practitioner: Exam Sample Questions
This is a computer-based test (CBT).

The following sample questions are similar to those on the examination but do not represent the full range of content or levels of difficulty.

To respond to the sample questions, first enter your first and last names in the boxes below (this information will not be recorded; it is strictly for purposes of identifying your results). Then click the button corresponding to the best answer for each question. When you are finished, click the "Evaluate" button at the bottom of the page. A new browser window will open, displaying your results, which you may print, if you wish.

This practice exam is not timed, and you may take it as many times as you wish. Good luck!

First name: Last name:

1. A patient is scheduled for elective orthopedic surgery. During the preadmission physical examination, the acute care nurse practitioner detects an asymptomatic pulsatile mass in the middle upper abdomen. The nurse practitioner's most appropriate action is to:

approve the patient for the elective surgery.
obtain a kidney-urethra-bladder x-ray.
obtain a renal arteriogram.
obtain an abdominal ultrasound examination.

2. A patient whose history includes migraine headaches and a recent myocardial infarction derives the most benefit from taking which type of antihypertensive agents?

A beta-adrenergic blocking agent
A thiazide diuretic
An alpha-adrenergic blocking agent
An angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor

3. Which musculoskeletal disease primarily involves the distal joints, hips, knees, and spine, and is characterized by the development of Heberden's and Bouchard's nodes?

Gout
Osteoarthritis
Osteoporosis
Rheumatoid arthritis

4. A 70-year-old patient who has a history of diabetes mellitus and heart failure is admitted to the hospital with pneumonia. Assessment reveals: Supine blood pressure of 140/70 mm Hg; Supine pulse rate of 72 beats/min; Standing blood pressure of 132/68 mm Hg; Standing pulse rate of 84 beats/min; Temperature of 100.4oF (38oC); and respirations of 14 breaths/min.

The physical examination is unremarkable except for decreased breath sounds in the lower posterior left lobe. The following laboratory results are obtained:
Sodium = 125 mEq/l
Chloride = 100 mEq/l
Potassium = 4.0 mEq/l
Creatinine = 1.6 mq/dl
HCO3 = 125 mEq/l
Glucose = 200 mq/dl
BUN = 18 mg/dl
Osmolality = 250 m/Osmol/kg




The patient's hyponatremia is caused by:


Addison disease.
heart failure.
hyperglycemia.
syndrome of inappropriate secretion of antidiuretic hormone (SIADH).

5. A 70-year-old woman who was admitted with cholecystitis is found to have a firm 2-cm swelling in the upper outer part of her right breast. The nurse practitioner's initial action is to:

advise the woman to follow up with her primary care physician.
refer the woman for a surgical biopsy.
send the woman for a mammogram.
wait two months to see if it resolves.

6. The primary indicator of metabolic acidosis is a:

bicarbonate level of less than 20 mEq/L.
change in pH and partial pressure of carbon dioxide (PaC02) in the same direction.
change in pH and PaC02 in opposite directions.
pH greater than 7.4.

7. While receiving chemotherapy for lung cancer, a patient becomes hypotensive and febrile to 104oF (40oC). A pulmonary artery catheter is inserted and reveals that the patient's cardiac output is 12 L/min and the pulmonary artery wedge pressure is 6 mm Hg. Based on these data, the nurse practitioner suspects which form of shock?

Cardiogenic
Hypovolemic
Neurogenic
Septic

8. A 60-year-old male patient, who has been hospitalized for an extended period after surgery, has not had his outpatient medications reordered. He complains of excruciating pain in the metatarsophalangeal joint of the right great toe. The diagnosis of acute gouty arthritis is confirmed by an elevated:

antinuclear antibody level.
erythrocyte sedimentation rate.
rheumatoid factor.
serum uric acid level.

9. An acute care nurse practitioner is deciding whether to recommend that a patient follow a long-term medication regimen that will help control disease symptoms but may also create troublesome side effects. This decision involves consideration of which ethical principle?

Autonomy
Beneficence
Fidelity
Non maleficence

10. Laboratory test results for a 78-year-old patient who is being evaluated for an aortic valve replacement, indicate a low serum albumin level. The patient is prescribed a high-protein diet. The acute care nurse practitioner can evaluate the patient's response with a:

calculation of body fat percentage.
complete blood count.
serum prealbumin level determination.
total serum protein level determination.

11. The initial treatment for a patient who has a superficial second degree burn over the dorsal aspect of the foot is to:

order IV antibiotics.
order povidone-iodine solution (Betadine).
order silver sulfadiazine cream.
unroof blisters and apply normal saline gauze.

12. A patient who had a left colectomy six days ago complains of vague abdominal discomfort on the right side of the abdomen. The patient's white blood count is elevated and the temperature is 38.9oC (102oF). The acute care nurse practitioner's most appropriate step is to:

obtain a chest x-ray.
obtain a urine culture.
obtain an abdominal ultrasound.
order antipyretics.

13. An intervention aimed at reducing the risk of diabetic retinopathy is:

a total cholesterol of less than 220.
an A1C test result of less than 9.
photocoagulation by laser.
tight control of hyperglycemia.

14. A 45-year-old patient who requires mechanical ventilation for acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) develops purulent exudate in the right eye and conjunctival injection. Which is the most effective treatment?

Ciprofloxacin (Ciloxan)
Levocabastine (Livostin)
Prednisolone (Predalone)
Timolol (Timoptic)

15. The ultimate goal of improving clinical practice through research is to:

decrease the cost of patient care.
improve health outcomes.
promote standardized care, through practice guidelines.
standardize health outcomes.

16. A patient with a history of myasthenia gravis is admitted with left lower lobe pneumonia. The patient reports worsening of diplopia and dysphagia and more trouble breathing, over the past few days. To help the patient with the worsening symptoms of myasthenia gravis, the acute care nurse practitioner:

calls for a neurology consult, for advisement on adjusting doses of neostigmine (Prostigmin) and corticosteroids.
orders an aminoglycoside, which is the drug of choice for treatment of pneumonia in a patient with myasthenia gravis.
orders nerve conduction studies to guide treatment.
prescribes dantrolene to minimize muscle spasticity.

17. For a patient with no history of polyps and no heritable risk factors, flexible sigmoidoscopy is recommended:

every 3 years starting at age 60.
every 3-5 years after the age of 50.
every 4-5 years after the age of 60.
every 10 years starting at age 45.

18. A 55-year-old man comes to the clinic for his routine follow-up, after a successful autologous bone marrow transplant for multiple myeloma. The patient states he has a skin lesion that has changed in appearance. The acute care nurse practitioner responds by:

calling for a dermatology consultation to evaluate the lesion.
inspecting and excising the lesion.
prescribing a topical steroid preparation.
recommending re-evaluation of the lesion in two weeks.

19. An intubated 56-year-old woman is in acute respiratory failure. The appropriate method of mechanical ventilation for this patient is:

assist-control ventilation.
continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) ventilation.
high frequency ventilation.
inverse ratio ventilation.

20. A method of noninvasive ventilation that applies inspiratory and expiratory pressures during the patient's respiratory cycle, using a mask, is:

bilevel positive airway pressure (BiPAP).
continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP).
nonrebreather mask.
venturi mask.

21. A 23-year-old woman admitted to the hospital for pyelonephritis is receiving antibiotics. In preparing the patient for discharge, the acute care nurse practitioner counsels the patient regarding:

birth control.
bleeding tendencies.
sexually transmitted diseases.
smoking cessation.

22. An 83-year-old woman arrives in the emergency department in severe respiratory distress. The patient verbalizes a desire not to be intubated nor to have cardiopulmonary resuscitation performed. She states that a neighbor has a copy of her recently signed living will. The acute care nurse practitioner leaves the bedside momentarily and returns to find the physician preparing to intubate the patient. The nurse practitioner first:

assists the physician with intubation.
calls the patient's neighbor to take a copy of the living will.
locates an old hospital chart to find a copy of the living will.
notifies the physician of the conversation with the patient.

23. A 24-year-old patient with a closed head injury has been intubated for 12 days. The patient's family has repeatedly refused consent for a tracheostomy and long-term care placement. The surgeon has discussed the risks and benefits of the surgery with the family, on multiple occasions. What is the best statement that the acute care nurse practitioner can verbalize to the family?

“I understand you have reservations about the placement of a tracheostomy.”
“Not many patients have died while undergoing a tracheostomy.”
“Without a tracheostomy, we cannot transfer this patient to another facility.”
“You know, the patient will die if a tracheostomy is not placed.”

24. A woman who recently immigrated to the United States and speaks minimal English has signed a consent for a surgical procedure, after having the risks and benefits explained by the surgeon. The acute care nurse practitioner asks the patient to indicate her understanding but she is unable to answer because she speaks only minimal English. The nurse practitioner takes responsibility for ensuring that the patient has informed consent by:

asking the patient's husband, who speaks better English, to help to explain the information.
explaining the information again to the patient, with gestures, and asking her to nod in understanding.
notifying the hospital ethics committee that the patient is going to surgery without informed consent.
providing the patient with a hospital translator to review the complete information, in the patient's language.

25. A 56-year-old man is seen in a clinic by the acute care nurse practitioner. The patient has a past medical history that is significant for hypertension, metabolic syndrome, and hyperlipidemia. A review of his symptoms indicate nocturia, occasional heartburn, and transient rhinitis. The patient asks about the appropriate interval of certain screening tests for someone his age. The nurse practitioner correctly answers that a:

digital prostate examination should be performed monthly.
prostate-specific antigen (PSA) should be performed annually.
sigmoidoscopy should be performed every 10 years.
testicular examination should be performed every two years.
____________________________________________________
Acute Care Nurse Practitioner: Exam Sample Questions
This is a computer-based test (CBT).

The following sample questions are similar to those on the examination but do not represent the full range of content or levels of difficulty. The answers to the sample questions are provided after the last question.

To respond to the sample questions, first enter your first and last names in the boxes below (this information will not be recorded; it is strictly for purposes of identifying your results). Then click the button corresponding to the best answer for each question. When you are finished, click the "Evaluate" button at the bottom of the page. A new browser window will open, displaying your results, which you may print, if you wish.

This practice exam is not timed, and you may take it as many times as you wish. Good luck!

First name: Last name:

1. To improve the health of a population, an acute care nurse practitioner's intervention is to:

join a professional nursing organization and run for an organizational office.
maintain current certification as an acute care nurse practitioner.
participate in hospital grand rounds.
report any unusual pattern of infections to the local health department.

2. A patient, who is allergic to penicillin, requires antibiotic treatment for community-acquired pneumonia. The patient has a limited income, lacks health insurance, and is about to be discharged from the hospital. An acute care nurse practitioner's intervention is to:

consult social services for assistance.
order an aerosol antibiotic.
transfer the patient to an extended care facility.
write a prescription for an antibiotic.

3. A patient is scheduled for elective orthopedic surgery. During the preadmission physical examination, the acute care nurse practitioner detects an asymptomatic pulsatile mass in the middle upper abdomen. The nurse practitioner's most appropriate action is to:

obtain a kidney-urethra-bladder x-ray.
obtain a renal arteriogram.
obtain an abdominal ultrasound.
proceed with the patient's elective surgery.

4. Which musculoskeletal disease primarily involves the distal joints, hips, knees, and spine, and is characterized by the development of Heberden and Bouchard nodes?

Gout
Osteoarthritis
Osteoporosis
Rheumatoid arthritis

5. An acute care nurse practitioner is deciding whether to recommend a long-term medication regimen that will help a patient manage disease symptoms but may also introduce problematic side effects. This decision reflects which ethical principle?

Autonomy
Beneficence
Fidelity
Justice

6. A patient, who has been in the intensive care unit for 17 days, develops hypernatremic hyperosmolality. The patient weighs 132 lb (59.9 kg), is intubated, and is receiving mechanical ventilation. The serum osmolality is 320 mOsm/L kg H2O. Clinical signs include tachycardia and hypotension. An acute care nurse practitioner's initial treatment is to:

reduce serum osmolality by infusing a 5% dextrose in 0.2% sodium chloride solution.
reduce serum sodium concentration by infusing a 0.45% sodium chloride solution.
replenish volume by infusing a 0.9% sodium chloride solution.
replenish volume by infusing a 5% dextrose in water solution.

7. A 78-year-old male patient with heart failure develops a bacterial urinary tract infection secondary to an indwelling Foley catheter. The patient has a known history of allergy to penicillin and sulfonamides. The appropriate choice for antimicrobial therapy is:

cephalexin (Keflex).
ciprofloxacin (Cipro).
doxycycline (Vibramycin).
tetracycline (Sumycin).

8. An acute care nurse practitioner is evaluating a 78-year-old patient for an aortic valve replacement. Laboratory results indicate a low serum albumin level. The nurse practitioner prescribes a high-protein diet and evaluates the patient's response by:

assessing the total serum protein level.
calculating the body fat percentage.
obtaining a complete blood count.
obtaining a serum prealbumin level.

9. A 42-year-old patient with metastatic lung cancer is admitted with severe intractable pain related to a pathologic fracture of the left femur. The plan is to stabilize the fracture surgically, and begin local radiation therapy to the site. For this patient, the most appropriate analgesic regimen is:

fentanyl (Duragesic) transdermal system applied every 72 hours.
meperidine (Demerol) 50 mg intramuscularly every three hours around the clock.
morphine sulfate (Avinza) IV via a patient-controlled analgesia pump with a basal rate.
oxycodone/acetaminophen (Percocet) orally every six hours around the clock.

10. A female patient is receiving adjuvant chemotherapy for breast cancer and has been given information about her treatment regimen, expected side effects, and symptom management. Which symptom, if occurring two weeks after treatment, warrants a prompt call to the acute care nurse practitioner?

Alopecia
Fatigue
Fever
Nausea

11. A patient with hydrocephalus secondary to a subarachnoid hemorrhage has developed an intracranial pressure of 25 mm Hg. The acute care nurse practitioner's intervention is to:

hyperventilate to reach a PCO2 of 30 mm Hg.
order dexamethasone (Decadron) 4 mg IV.
perform a ventriculostomy and drainage of cerebrospinal fluid.
prescribe mannitol (Osmitrol) 100 g IV.

12. Which medication is used with caution in older adults due to the potential for confusion and delirium?

Fluoxetine (Prozac)
Haloperidol (Haldol)
Lorazepam (Ativan)
Phenelzine (Nardil)

13. A 45-year-old patient, who is on mechanical ventilatory support in the intensive care unit, is receiving a neuromuscular blockade for respiratory control related to acute respiratory failure. To prevent keratoconjunctivitis sicca, the acute care nurse practitioner prescribes:

artificial tears preparations.
IV antibiotic administration.
local sulfonamide therapy.
topical steroid administration.

14. After undergoing a successful autologous bone marrow transplant for multiple myeloma, a 55-year-old male patient comes to the clinic for his followup appointment. The patient reports that a skin lesion has changed in appearance. The acute care nurse practitioner responds by:

consulting dermatology to evaluate the lesion.
inspecting and excising the lesion.
prescribing a topical steroid preparation.
recommending reevaluation in two weeks.

15. An 83-year-old patient arrives in the emergency department in severe respiratory distress. The patient verbalizes a desire not to be intubated nor to have cardiopulmonary resuscitation performed. The patient states that a neighbor has a copy of the patient's recently signed living will. The acute care nurse practitioner leaves the bedside momentarily and returns to find the physician preparing to intubate. The nurse practitioner's initial action is to:

assist the physician with intubation.
call the patient's neighbor to deliver a copy of the living will.
locate a previous patient record to find a copy of the living will.
notify the physician of the conversation with the patient.

16. A 24-year-old male patient with a closed head injury has been intubated for 12 days. The patient's parents have repeatedly refused consent for a tracheostomy and long-term care placement. On multiple occasions, the surgeon has discussed the risks and benefits of the surgery with them. Addressing the parents, the acute care nurse practitioner states:

“I understand you have reservations about the placement of a tracheostomy.”
“Please know that not many patients die while undergoing a tracheostomy.”
“Without a tracheostomy, we can't transfer your son to another facility.”
“You know, your son will die if a tracheostomy is not placed.”

17. Before initiating a new antihypertensive drug therapy, an acute care nurse practitioner uses which evidence-based practice approach?

Discussing the medication choices with a collaborating physician
Discussing the medication's side effects with a colleague
Reviewing the confidence intervals of related research
Reviewing the institutional formulary

18. During a clinic appointment, an acute care nurse practitioner sees a 56-year-old male patient with a history of hypertension, metabolic syndrome, and hyperlipidemia. A review of the patient's symptoms reveals nocturia, occasional heartburn, and transient rhinitis. The patient asks about the appropriate interval of certain screening tests for someone his age. The nurse practitioner responds that a:

digital prostate examination should be performed monthly.
prostate-specific antigen should be performed annually.
sigmoidoscopy should be performed every 10 years.
testicular examination should be performed every two years.

19. Which is an accurate statement regarding the formal evaluation of quality of care?

Continuous quality improvement (CQI) programs focus on individual incidents.
Health care regulatory agencies have not identified an effective means to measure quality.
Hospitals do not receive payment for services if quality of care evaluations are not performed.
The Joint Commission mandates that hospitals implement CQI programs.

20. While providing a history, a patient requests that an acute care nurse practitioner disclose the information gathered with no one but the patient's spouse. By respecting this request, the nurse practitioner demonstrates which component of a therapeutic relationship?

Autonomy
Beneficence
Confidentiality
Empathy

21. A 57-year-old male patient arrives at the emergency department with substernal chest pain. An electrocardiogram reveals ST segment depression in leads V3 and V4. Before administering nitrates, an acute care nurse practitioner assesses the patient's use of:

angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors.
aspirin.
beta-blockers.
phosphodiesterase inhibitors.

22. For an 84-year-old patient who undergoes surgery, the most accurate predictor of mortality and patient outcome is:

a low score on a Mini-Mental State Examination.
an impaired functional status.
the availability of social support.
the patient's chronological age.

23. An acute care nurse practitioner performs a cardiac assessment on a patient with a confirmed mitral valve prolapse. During which activity does the nurse practitioner expect the patient's murmur to diminish?

Inhaling
Sitting
Squatting
Standing

24. A 21-year-old patient is admitted to the intensive care unit with a severe closed head injury. The patient's family is becoming louder and more insistent about seeing the patient. To establish a therapeutic relationship with the family, an acute care nurse practitioner’s initial action is to:

acknowledge the family’s anxiety.
arrange for a meeting with a social worker.
escort the family to a conference room.
gently direct the family to maintain composure.

25. An acute care nurse practitioner is called to the medical intensive care unit to evaluate a patient who is intubated for mechanical ventilation. The patient's arterial blood gas results are: pH-7.35; PCO2-44 mm Hg; HCO3-22 mEq/L; and PO2-52 mm Hg. The current ventilator settings are: Assist control; Respiratory rate-14 breaths/min; Tidal volume (TV)-400 mL; Fraction of inspired O2-100%; and positive-end expiratory pressure (PEEP)-5 cm H2O. The nurse practitioner's next action is to increase the:

peak pressure alarm to 40 mm Hg.
PEEP to 10 cm H2O.
respiratory rate to 18 breaths/min.
TV to 500 mL.
__________________________________________________________________
Free Quiz to test your medical sales knowledge

1. A surgical incision of the chest wall.

A. vilectomy
B. lungestomy
C. chromactomy
D. thoracotomy
2. A treatment procedure that uses a pulling force to prevent or reduce muscle spasm, to keep a joint or other body part stationary, or to hold the ends of broken bones in place.

A. gravitation
B. traction
C. gerontation
D. prostration
3. The famous "Gifts to Physicians from Industry" guideline to provide ethical guidance for medical device companies interacting with physicians was written and adhered to by which industry associaton?

A. FDA
B. HIPAA
C. AMA
D. PhRMA
4. The are a couple of managed care concepts that a medical device sales rep should be aware of?

A. Clinical practice guidelines and disease management
B. MCO's and VMA's
C. Provider guidelines and formulary contracts
D. PMA's and PRB's
5. A surgical instrument used for cutting a circular hole?

A. intractable
B. trephine
C. fomate
D. bougie
6. The surgical removal of all or part of the colon. This procedure is performed to treat serious diseases, such as colon cancer.

A. Colonoscopy
B. Colectomy
C. Colposcopy
D. Colonatomy
7. A newly found medical test call SPECT stands for:

A. safety practice emission control test
B. special emission control test
C. single-photon emission computed tomography
D. simple practice emission cancer test
8. The process of tumor formation?

A. Neoplasia
B. Virulence
C. Fibroma
D. Centrifuge
9. The Medical Device Amendment Act in 1976, thus empowered which group to regulate medical devices during their design and development Phases?

A. Department of Health and Human Service
B. FDA (Federal Drug Administration)
C. FTC (Federal Trade Commission)
D. AMA (American Medical Association)
10. A scanning technique that combines nuclear medicine and chemical analysis to enable physicians to observe the function of certain organs of the body?

A. X-ray
B. PET Scanning
C. Stereo scanning
D. Biomedical scanning
Quiz questions may be accessed at the NAMSR website.

Saturday, January 16, 2010

Journal of Evolution and Technology -- www.jetpress.org/index.html

http://www.jetpress.org/index.html
When will computer hardware match the human brain?
http://www.transhumanist.com/volume1/moravec.htm

Friday, January 8, 2010

Hospital jobs

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_hospitals_in_California
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_hospitals_in_California#Los_Angeles_County_-_North
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_hospitals_in_California#Los_Angeles_County_-_South
http://kaiserext.kaiserpermanentejobs.org/joblist.html?JServSessionIdroot=2ezkow1ja1.JS3
http://kaiserext.kaiserpermanentejobs.org/joblist.html?erpc=alljobs
https://jobs.usc.edu/applicants/jsp/shared/frameset/Frameset.jsp?time=1262982800083
http://jobs.businessweek.com/a/all-jobs/list/q-Cedars-Sinai+Medical+Center/l-Beverly+Hills,+CA
http://jobs.businessweek.com/a/all-jobs/list/q-Cedars-Sinai+Medical+Center/l-90005
http://jobs.lthcare.ucla.edu/02_home_app.html
https://jobs2.mednet.ucla.edu/css_external/CSSPage_SearchJobs.ASP?T=20100108193522&
https://jobs2.mednet.ucla.edu/css_external/CSSPage_SearchResults.ASP
https://recruiting.cityofhope.org/psc/RECRUITING/EMPLOYEE/HRMS/c/HRS_HRAM.HRS_CE.GBL?Page=HRS_CE_HM_PRE&Action=A&SiteId=100
http://www.chmcla.org/search/index.htm
http://www.elalax.com/employment.php
http://goodsamcareers.org/
https://search8.smartsearchonline.com/goodsam/jobs/adhocjobsearch.asp
https://search8.smartsearchonline.com/goodsam/jobs/process_jobsearch.asp?status_code=ohot
http://www.hollywoodpresbyterian.com/en/careers/careeropportunities/
http://www.pamc.net/miedit_user_files/file/pamc_job_openings.pdf
http://www.pamc.net/crs.php
http://health.usnews.com/health/best-hospitals/st-vincent-medical-center-6931730/details ;hospitals search
http://www.stvincentmedicalcenter.com/careers/Pages/SearchJobs.aspx
http://jobs.businessweek.com/a/all-jobs/list/q-Hollywood+Community+Hospital/l-Los+Angeles,+CA
http://www.templecommunityhospital.com/Employment.cfm
http://www.job.com/my.job/search/
http://www.chla.org/site/c.ipINKTOAJsG/b.3632879/k.931C/Search_Jobs.htm
www.chla.org/site/c.ipINKTOAJsG/b.3476093/k.3A0C/Hospital_Career_Opportunities.htm
http://65-242-98-135.hagenhosting.com/cgi-bin/jobs/classifieds.cgi
http://www.olympiamc.com/Careers/default?listing=true
http://allthingsd.jobamatic.com/a/jobs/find-jobs/q-Kindred+Healthcare/l-Los+Angeles,+CA
http://www.apria.com/careers/job_search/1,3597,488,00.html
https://tbe.taleo.net/NA9/ats/careers/jobSearch.jsp?org=CHILDRENSBUREAU&cws=1
http://www.jpshealthnet.org/About-JPS/Business-Support-Career-Pathways.aspx?terms=careers
http://www.unitedsurgical.com/Careers/SearchPositions.aspx
http://www.employmentspot.com/jobs/Los-Angeles,California_nursing/
http://upcoming.yahoo.com/event/1486268/FL/west-palm-beach/Free-cpr-bls-first-aid-certification-classes-training-online/cpr-florida
http://www.peppsite.com/course_pretesting_bls.cfm
http://www.mnsu.edu/comdis/kuster4/part75.html
http://www.justcoding.com/quizlet_archive/
http://www.indiastudychannel.com/questions/
http://www.studyguidezone.com/medical_exams.htm
http://redcrossla.org/howwehelp/jobs

Tuesday, January 5, 2010

Top 10 Business Ideas for 20010;Letter_of_credit

http://springwise.com/businessideas2010/
en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Letter_of_credit

Saturday, January 2, 2010

Nutrient Data Product and Services

www.ars.usda.gov/SP2UserFiles/Place/12354500/Data/Flav/Flav02-1.pdf
www.ars.usda.gov/SP2UserFiles/Place/12354500/Data/Fluoride/F02.pdf
www.ars.usda.gov/SP2UserFiles/Place/12354500/Data/isoflav/Isoflav_R2.pdf
www.ars.usda.gov/SP2UserFiles/Place/12354500/Data/PA/PA.pdf - Proanthocyanidin
Subclasses of flavonoids and selected compounds:
$ FLAVONOLS: Isorhamnetin, Kaempferol, Myricetin, Quercetin (Figure 1)
$ FLAVONES: Apigenin, Luteolin (Figure 2)
$ FLAVANONES: Eriodictyol, Hesperetin, Naringenin (Figure 3)
$ FLAVAN-3-OLS: Catechins and gallic acid esters of catechins, Epicatechins and
gallic acid esters of epicatechins, Theaflavins and gallic acid esters of theaflavins,
Thearubigins (Figure 4 and 5)
$ ANTHOCYANIDINS: Cyanidin, Delphinidin, Malvidin, Pelargonidin, Peonidin,
Petunidin (Figure 6)

Flavonol R1 R 2
Isorhamnetin OMe H
Kaempferol H H
Myricetin OH OH
Quercetin OH H

Flavone R1
Apigenin H
Luteolin OH

Flavanone R1 R2
Eriodictyol OH OH
Hesperetin OMe OH
Naringenin OH H

Flavan-3-ol R1 R 2 R3
(+)-Catechin (C) H H OH
(+)-Catechin-3-gallate (CG) H H Gallate
(-)-Epicatechin (EC) H OH H
(-)-Epicatechin-3-gallate (ECG) H Gallate H
(-)-Epigallocatechin (EGC) OH OH H
(-)-Epigallocatechin-3-gallate (EGCG) OH Gallate H
(+)-Gallocatechin (GC) OH H OH
(+)-Gallocatechin-3-gallate (GCG) OH H Gallate

Theaflavin R1 R2
Theaflavin OH OH
Theaflavin-3-gallate Gallate OH
Theaflavin-3’-gallate OH Gallate
Theaflavin-3,3’-digallate Gallate Gallate

Anthocyanidin R1 R2
Cyanidin H OH
Delphinidin OH OH
Malvidin OMe OMe
Pelargonidin H H
Peonidin H OMe
Petunidin OH OMe
_________________________________________________
Isoflavone
Daidzein
Genistein
Glycitein
________________________________________________
Proanthocyanidin_______________________________
subclass_____________Flavan -3-ol monomer
Procyanidin__________Catechin
_____________________Epicatechin

Prodelphinidin_______Gallocatechin
_____________________Epigallocatechin
Propelargonidin______Afzelechin
_______________________________________________
USDA Database for the Flavonoid Content of Selected Foods (100gr. Edible portion/mg.)

Peonidin – 11.38 blueberry; Plums purple raw 5.21; Red plums raw 2,21; Onions red raw 1.22; Grapes red 2.89; Cranberries raw 42.10; Cherries sweet raw 4.47; Blueberries wild raw 23.49; Blueberries raw 11.38; Bilberry raw 51.01; Apples red with peel raw 0.05; Red wine 0.84;

Apigenin - 225.93 parsley ; 13,506.22 dried

Pelargonidin – 25,66 Radishes raw; 31.27 Strawberries raw

Epicatechin 3-gallate – Carob flour 30.06; grapes black 2.81; Tea, fruit, dry 273.33; Tea, green, brewed
19.73; Tea leaves, green, dry 1491.29; black tea

Epigallocatechin - Cacao beans 156.67; pecans 5.63; plums black diamond with peel raw 13.06; Tea green brewed 16.71 ; Tea leaves, green, dry 2057.98

Gallocatechin – Tea leaves green dry 258.11; 956.81 Tea leaves black dry; Tea green ready to drink 4.99;

Hesperetin - Blood orange juice 13.2; Lemon raw 27.90; Limes raw 43; Tangelo juice 74.89;

Naringenin – Artichokes (goble or French) raw 12.51; Blood orange juice 1.68; Grapefruit raw pink, and red 32.64 (Citrus Paradisi); Kumquats raw 57.39; Pummelo juice raw 25.31; Rosemary fresh 24.86; Tangelo juice 42.51;

Luteolin – Lemons raw 1.90; Lettuce red leaf raw 1.58; Red grapes 1.32; Olive leaves raw 27.70; Oregano Mexican raw (Lippia graveolens) 25.10; Oregano, fresh
(Origanum vulgare) 1; Peppermint fresh 11.33; Peppers, hot chili, green, raw (Capsicum
frutescens) 3.87; Peppers pimento 10.36; Peppers hot yellow, wax, raw 6.93; Peppers sweet green raw 4.98; Queen Anne's Lace, leaves, raw 34.10; Rosemary fresh 2.00; Celery hearts 3.2; Sage fresh 16.70; Thyme fresh 45.25;

Isorhamnetin - Spices, parsley, dried (Petroselinum crispum) 331.24
Dill weed, fresh (Anethum graveolens) 43.50

Kaempferol – Arugula raw 72.45; Beans, common, raw (P. vulgaris, cv. Zolfino) (Phaseolus vulgaris var.
Zolfino 31.32; Broccoli raw 4.01; Capers raw 259.19; Carob fiber (Caromax) 11.67; Chard swiss raw 4.30;
Chives raw 10-17; Cress garden raw 13; Dill weed fresh 13.33; Dock leaves raw 10.30; Endive raw 10.10; Garlic chives raw 2.12; Horseradish 1.58; Kale canned 18.40; Kale raw 26.74; Radish laves 21; Taragon fresh 11; Tea leaves black dry 126.66; Tea leaves green dry 147.55;

Myricetin – Bee pollen 3.34; Blackberry juice concentrate 20.85; Carob fiber 47.74; Carob flour 6.73; Cranberries raw 6.78; Cranberries bottled cocktail 0.51; Crowberries 4.65; Currants European black raw 6.64; Dock leaves raw 5.70; Fennel leaves raw, 19.80; Grapes black 0.45; Honey mixed 1.03; Onions red raw 2.70; Oregano fresh 2.1; Parsley raw 8.08; Pepper hot chili green raw 1.2; 42.24 Tea leaves black dry; Tea leaves green dry 104.76;

Quercetin – Tea leaves green dry 223.97; Tea leaves black dry 199.75; Watercress raw 7.44; Tomatoes cherry raw 2.76; Tomato products puree canned without salt 4.12; Tomato juice caned without salt 1.46; Tea green brewed 2.69; Tarragon fresh 10; Ipomoea batatas 11.757; Spinach raw 4.11; Rowanberries raw 7.40; Radish leaves raw 70.37; 12.45 Plums black raw with peels; 50.63 Peppers hot yellow wax raw; 5.07 Peppers jalapeno raw; 6.45 Peppers long yellow raw; 14.70 Peppers hot chili green raw; 27.60 Peppers ancho; Peppers green raw14,27; Oregano fresh 7.30; Onions red raw 33.43; Okra raw 24.26; 24.88 Nalta jute raw; Lovage leaves raw 170; Lettuce red leaf raw 11.99; Lemons without peel 1.52; Kale raw 7.71; Hawthorn leaves raw 24.10; Hartwort leaves 29.30; Fennel leaves raw 48.80; Elderberry juice concentrate 108.18; Elderberry raw 42; Dock leaves raw 86.20; Dill weed fresh 55.15; Currants European black raw 5.55; Crowberry juice 3.88; (raw 5.45); Cranberry juice raw 16.41; Corn poppy, leaves 26.30; Coriander (cilantro) leaves, raw 52.90; Cocoa dry powder 20.13; Chokeberry juice 68.17; Capers raw 233.84; (172.55 canned); Buckwheat 23.09; Bee pollen 20.95; Apple skin only (Malus Domestica) 19.36;

Apigenin - Parsley, raw (Petroselinum crispum) 225.93
Spices, parsley, dried (Petroselinum crispum) 13506.22

Luteolin - Oregano, Mexican, raw (Lippia graveolens) 25.10
Peppers, sweet, green, raw (Capsicum annuum) 4.98
Queen Anne's Lace, leaves, raw (Daucus carota subsp. Carota) 34.10
Sage, fresh (Salvia) 16.70
Spices, parsley, dried (Petroselinum crispum) 19.75
Thyme, fresh (Thymus vulgaris) 45.25

Eriodictyol - Lemons, raw, without peel (Citrus limon) 21.36
Peppermint, fresh (Mentha x piperita nothossp. piperita) 30.92
Lemon juice, canned or bottled 10.56

_____________________________________________________
Database for the Proanthocyanidin Content of Selected Foods

Monomers - Baking chocolate,unsweetened,squares 198.54; Broadbeans (fava beans), mature
seeds, raw 80.84; Cacao beans 1381.28; Chocolate, liquor 363.33; Cocoa, dry powder,
unsweetened 316.83; Grape seeds, raw 171.29; Hops 157.53;


Dimers - Red wine 20.49; Apples, Red Delicious, with peel, raw 15.12; Apples, Renette,
with peel, raw 23.16; Baking chocolate,unsweetened,squares 206.51; Broadbeans (fava
beans), mature seeds, raw 7.48; Whole groat 46.51; Cacao beans 831.29; Chocolate, liquor 306.67; Cocoa, dry powder, unsweetened 183.49; Grape seeds, raw 169.89; Hops 84.10; Nuts pecans 42.13; Peaches white with peel raw 23.45; Plum yellow whole raw 27.71; Peaches 38.54 with peel raw; Spices, cinnamon, ground 256 29;

Trimers - Apples, Renette, with peel, raw 11.45; Apples, Red Delicious, with peel, raw 10.11; Chocolate, liquor 210.00; Baking chocolate, unsweetened, squares 130.88; Cacao beans 785.70; Hops 51.53; Cocoa, dry powder, unsweetened 159.54; Spices, cinnamon, ground 1252.20; Spices, curry powder 22.88; Sorghum, bran 123.72; Nuts, pecans 26.03; Grape seeds, raw 32.22; Cranberry raw 18.93;Barley 50; Red wine 1.80;

4-6Mers – Red wine 6.70; Apples, Golden Delicious, with peel, raw 21.77; Apples, Granny Smith, with peel, raw 32.90; Apples, Red Delicious, with peel raw 28.59; Baking chocolate,unsweetened,
Squares 332.62; Cacao beans 2690.78; Chocolate, liquor 406.67; Cocoa, dry powder,
Unsweetened 524.53; Nuts Almonds 39.97; Nut pecans 101.43; Sorghum, bran 650.32; Spices, cinnamon, Ground 2608.63;


7-10Mers - Apples, Golden Delicious, with peel raw 18.75; Apples, Granny Smith, with peel, raw 30.12; Apples, Red Delicious, with peel, raw 25.12; Baking chocolate, unsweetened, squares 216.39; Beans, kidney, red, mature seeds, raw 90.50; Beans, pinto, mature seeds, raw 1325.62; Cacao beans 2224.21; Chocolate, liquor 190; Cocoa, dry powder, unsweetened 188.93; Nuts pecans 84.23; Sorghum, bran 78.19; Spices, cinnamon, ground 1458.32;

Polymers – Red wine 11; Apples, Granny Smith, with peel, raw 46.31; Apples, Red Delicious,
with peel, raw 40.54; Baking chocolate, unsweetened, squares 551; Beans, pinto, mature seeds, raw 459.63; Blueberries, raw 129.5; Blueberries, wild, raw 255.09; Cacao beans 1568.49; Choke berries 542.60; Cocoa, dry powder, unsweetened NONE; Cranberries, raw 233.48; Hops NONE; Grapes, green, raw 58.87; Grapes, red, raw 44.56; Kiwi NONE; Nuts, almonds 80.26; Nuts,
hazelnuts or filberts 322.44; Nuts pecans 223.01; Sorghum, bran 2927.64; Spices, cinnamon,
ground 2508.78; Spices, curry powder NONE; Strawberries, raw 75.78;
www.chinese-culture.net/html/lingzhi_coffee.html - Lingzhi (Reishi) Coffee
Lingzhi contains:Organic Germanium, Beta Glucans,Triterpenoids,Adenosine,Amino Acids.

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_human_genes
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_enzymes
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_proteins

Wednesday, December 30, 2009

Past Winning Numbers Mega Millions & Super Lotto

_______________________________________
www.calottery.com/games/megamillions/winningnumbers/pastwinningnumbers.htm
https://www6.state.nj.us/LOT_SEARCHES/WinnerSearch
________________________________________
01 10 22 23 38 19 01/29/2010
07 08 38 39 48 22
08 13 27 28 52 09
04 05 34 38 41 18
04 07 19 21 38 29
05 09 31 37 56 16
18 20 31 36 43 33
13 28 39 50 55 10
06 08 27 40 41 21
02 35 05 29 51 03 Draw # 472;12-29-2009
52 04 44 16 54 20
39 35 45 03 33 13
44 49 30 20 10 24
32 27 31 36 47 35
34 21 27 02 44 45
28 30 20 46 23 29
51 41 33 04 56 38
53 17 52 39 30 21
12 25 39 45 37 11
37 35 50 10 11 12
03 04 56 07 16 39
22 50 08 49 27 28
54 43 49 45 27 44
37 34 29 21 08 15
40 11 46 07 27 08
23 38 31 05 18 20
15 38 04 29 17 20
46 07 13 51 37 02
54 48 45 56 27 02
45 17 55 25 13 08
51 10 13 18 33 43
17 51 45 34 31 24
21 14 51 24 03 14
56 09 51 53 33 39
53 55 15 51 24 11
45 21 50 25 02 21
27 07 52 49 42 19
29 26 33 46 39 24
31 52 18 27 36 33
29 35 41 30 32 39
48 27 54 16 49 02
18 04 10 50 28 35
44 06 04 21 02 37
02 28 53 51 09 19
37 01 17 31 54 31
40 19 22 03 12 02
49 09 44 38 48 13
05 56 37 26 04 25
35 25 08 22 33 46
06 12 15 42 32 40
07 35 45 18 56 03
28 01 50 42 34 27
56 35 44 17 52 22
48 04 17 24 25 34
06 51 03 43 52 36
50 08 21 03 52 02
47 17 50 40 08 13
20 35 53 45 29 41
10 05 26 27 28 04
39 25 27 38 35 28
11 06 07 05 25 31
55 49 54 07 34 34
15 17 29 46 11 16
12 31 16 50 14 09
04 09 46 16 12 44
15 21 26 09 45 25
06 44 11 32 20 38
31 05 17 36 56 46
52 38 20 05 41 20
13 26 30 35 09 33
23 36 39 30 48 34
55 21 18 09 37 33
49 34 03 29 42 29
09 04 42 15 02 13
48 12 24 07 36 27
08 51 10 04 14 31
12 32 29 27 34 34
23 38 39 54 05 03
40 09 16 43 24 35
44 36 15 20 24 06
09 21 49 20 48 07
37 24 47 05 52 06
13 05 35 26 45 32
22 48 50 11 04 42
42 18 25 51 36 22
04 02 13 36 17 15
39 22 16 38 48 42
14 47 53 39 48 29
15 50 38 24 10 19
44 25 04 34 43 45
20 39 40 15 16 26
28 09 24 15 31 17
46 12 26 50 10 23
39 31 02 40 27 23
55 46 11 37 18 45
35 43 52 26 32 10
56 37 50 24 44 35
40 01 27 35 28 06
45 21 55 28 41 24
23 27 01 09 33 24
25 37 51 40 36 20
47 29 38 18 43 07
28 12 31 18 02 03
29 56 43 04 15 29
19 53 16 13 55 02
12 03 21 11 14 25
20 17 02 27 28 07
46 35 10 09 01 09
04 02 39 51 21 29
25 33 22 36 48 40
45 50 25 23 30 08
11 19 12 03 33 30
34 02 11 21 19 38
44 29 52 22 01 39
19 37 06 29 33 31
13 27 01 08 41 45
54 39 16 13 03 32
10 14 29 40 16 06
27 16 10 19 48 25
33 11 31 26 12 27
46 27 21 55 52 14
32 17 02 22 51 35
46 30 48 44 10 44
11 22 51 52 02 46
52 56 01 22 53 45
53 52 10 22 15 12
03 19 34 18 30 03
55 27 38 42 05 41
24 32 14 43 44 21
23 41 21 10 55 09
17 29 02 47 07 40
48 06 45 46 39 36
52 33 05 34 47 18
42 16 44 19 39 38
27 07 15 28 31 35
14 41 42 51 35 23
48 15 43 46 14 21
42 38 02 25 35 34
52 32 41 13 28 16
39 35 09 49 30 36
31 36 06 14 13 36
09 32 43 34 52 04
09 02 48 51 41 37
51 24 39 52 13 44
14 01 35 25 12 38
22 28 49 52 23 02
15 06 27 01 46 39
43 14 44 23 54 39
50 21 25 26 51 22
16 34 24 06 36 30
42 12 13 41 15 37
40 18 19 26 09 38
08 29 30 23 53 07
07 38 40 02 23 40
11 32 17 28 50 33
38 55 09 21 36 13
56 18 13 09 17 02
30 11 20 42 13 03
16 19 52 02 35 17
16 29 23 02 32 46
55 36 29 53 17 26
45 24 51 19 34 40
51 39 14 05 16 34
29 22 20 41 01 35
19 03 01 12 20 28
33 22 01 52 43 36
14 50 22 08 39 44
53 22 36 10 50 39
36 42 25 11 17 13
14 05 47 49 25 36
38 09 08 14 44 36
15 03 51 05 43 11
43 44 09 54 08 27
54 32 19 04 24 05
40 55 47 39 53 32
49 32 24 14 45 17
11 08 22 04 30 04
26 02 41 14 32 32
47 11 46 39 06 26
20 47 31 27 24 15
16 56 31 43 46 22
46 53 04 21 54 26
37 08 53 28 55 26
44 51 24 35 19 26
22 48 03 31 54 09
53 28 36 50 24 29
48 12 50 27 13 30
18 27 14 42 31 07
08 09 44 31 37 38
03 49 05 40 45 17
56 17 26 04 46 25
27 40 26 07 43 10
43 53 42 48 38 12
08 05 41 19 17 21
20 13 44 15 25 37
25 03 12 18 52 21
47 13 04 41 35 44
41 32 48 33 19 12
56 30 07 15 33 22
26 55 17 22 05 38
12 09 55 30 36 15
12 22 19 07 13 10
56 55 42 01 38 34
11 30 53 26 07 14
47 39 27 14 50 12
30 21 43 50 46 18
40 04 05 51 17 38
44 56 03 30 14 05 Draw# 273;02-01-2008

____________________________________________
www.calottery.com/Games/superlottoplus/WinningNumbers/pastwinningnumbers.htm
http://www.calottery.com/CaLottery_es/Templates/Common/TwoColumnTearRightNbrsSearches.aspx?NRMODE=Published&NRORIGINALURL=%2fWinnersGallery%2fAmazingStats%2fWinnersSearch%2f&NRNODEGUID=%7b511BB9DA-13AB-4F45-8483-59B340B8820C%7d&NRCACHEHINT=NoModifyGuest
___________________________________________

20 08 21 19 41 03 Draw # 2372; 12-26-09
14 29 28 08 18 02
19 37 44 40 30 06
19 31 13 41 18 12
30 05 32 06 03 17
05 27 44 14 30 17
42 44 05 30 29 20
42 33 31 22 16 19
12 33 17 42 26 20
13 01 14 47 10 20
34 43 35 30 28 02
45 24 12 06 10 10
37 33 38 47 15 16
04 28 06 15 24 27
39 44 34 06 10 01
38 29 39 01 12 19
06 15 10 18 23 22
33 27 31 38 19 01
11 01 26 32 10 10
22 30 47 33 43 25
36 47 06 08 03 13
12 13 38 30 26 24
11 06 02 16 43 12
18 44 08 01 26 04
25 45 13 29 46 05
04 39 20 18 23 14
13 47 34 07 39 03
22 41 01 04 42 13
46 17 06 44 33 18
18 05 28 17 22 10
05 24 47 30 41 15
02 47 27 37 41 26
33 05 25 17 02 18
09 41 27 13 42 27
13 37 06 14 36 12
07 36 42 06 18 23
32 26 06 05 16 22
35 25 41 29 20 25
07 09 47 25 29 24
36 08 29 05 47 23
23 44 31 46 40 10
41 28 27 23 22 17
39 06 26 13 18 24
19 25 39 08 12 17
47 12 36 20 04 13
31 32 45 26 43 18
24 34 10 23 40 20
03 01 06 41 25 10
21 18 12 28 24 26
08 18 31 22 03 02
01 06 11 17 33 13
37 10 15 17 38 17
42 25 27 15 07 24
23 18 37 03 13 25
40 23 16 41 35 12
30 24 16 44 21 06
44 06 11 29 31 01
36 20 09 11 30 11
37 31 29 12 47 03
03 18 36 43 12 15
47 39 23 22 31 03
05 07 08 14 35 26
38 07 23 39 15 21
36 35 06 27 02 01
27 05 19 42 36 27
26 15 42 11 32 18
43 42 26 07 06 01
28 24 23 26 29 11
38 20 29 01 34 27
02 05 32 08 21 20
06 46 40 26 36 19
44 20 06 36 05 18
35 41 18 29 13 19
35 34 43 07 18 25
04 02 34 12 46 16
18 30 21 12 19 04
08 21 46 18 41 24
04 17 07 31 33 01
30 12 27 14 29 27
03 31 23 07 36 16
45 34 38 07 28 06
44 26 38 45 37 09
43 31 22 45 36 16
47 34 15 38 08 02
17 46 39 34 40 04
05 24 12 06 44 12
08 16 29 28 21 01
13 23 01 19 25 12
30 27 32 38 25 02
40 23 10 06 01 18
29 15 26 40 42 25
23 04 34 15 11 26
23 24 44 14 25 18
35 45 23 33 04 14
35 43 34 04 38 17
13 21 26 41 08 20
05 29 25 22 35 07
15 37 29 21 06 10
08 17 26 20 38 19
01 39 19 44 45 08
38 25 31 29 30 25
40 17 41 35 30 02
37 44 05 14 47 25
03 42 13 40 29 09
38 19 14 32 22 01
26 07 23 40 10 26
15 10 46 47 16 22
34 46 42 41 20 26
20 32 45 25 22 12
30 46 38 33 47 11
26 29 15 45 37 22
25 15 34 14 19 08
32 06 36 21 04 03
37 41 06 47 07 13
01 17 21 20 12 25
13 18 46 20 17 06
18 29 39 27 08 23
45 42 37 22 02 19
47 16 35 07 40 24
10 32 31 26 40 23
28 03 38 11 30 12
03 29 28 41 20 14
25 43 45 24 03 20
36 27 15 13 26 10
09 39 27 36 11 10
10 07 23 24 40 26
37 38 33 25 30 01
18 17 25 06 13 09
33 42 15 08 25 23
20 36 05 13 15 24
31 07 32 21 04 26
40 41 20 01 06 18
33 23 12 44 37 05
19 26 40 27 47 21
19 21 13 41 06 16
36 32 07 25 27 12
06 35 47 07 34 23
07 22 05 11 20 11
04 02 20 41 13 22
10 20 42 36 18 25
47 29 13 22 43 04
30 08 37 10 03 13
16 36 06 25 26 19
23 08 32 39 12 25
24 39 11 09 14 17
17 38 06 41 11 25
12 03 47 01 06 22
03 12 11 29 25 21
09 14 28 07 41 11
33 02 06 36 09 20
29 41 40 33 10 19
22 10 35 19 12 16
28 32 47 20 19 22
44 46 41 13 02 26
22 27 28 32 07 20
40 44 33 21 20 02
41 29 10 14 17 26
05 30 44 41 17 14
41 30 10 29 33 18
20 44 11 30 27 13
28 09 37 07 26 18
31 39 14 42 30 15
33 04 29 23 44 05
07 33 25 44 22 03
06 08 25 11 29 04
03 10 28 04 39 26
02 19 31 04 42 12
13 01 44 20 30 20
46 35 13 41 24 05
19 37 43 07 29 22
20 24 33 25 11 23
26 45 42 35 17 04
44 22 10 08 33 10
40 35 14 34 13 16
12 17 20 31 04 20
06 22 21 38 34 14
06 03 19 25 05 20
13 05 14 37 27 09
40 34 15 19 20 17
42 05 23 43 17 19
06 07 24 02 31 03
43 05 29 07 21 22
18 34 11 01 19 13
35 28 09 08 10 09
47 04 16 05 43 20
31 14 40 15 23 07
29 11 22 04 31 12
19 16 39 10 21 15
17 14 41 19 18 26
20 47 04 34 10 19
22 35 36 17 47 25
22 15 23 40 42 15
33 41 02 25 35 10
02 41 06 17 45 01
33 22 41 25 45 09
45 23 46 19 02 16
34 30 39 41 23 01
31 02 46 20 30 27
16 10 43 35 11 09
47 10 18 40 28 22 Draw # 2173; 01-30-2008

How to control your dream

Category: Dreams and the Supernatural
1. Throughout the day, while you are awake, ask yourself, "Is this a dream?" anytime something odd happens or even when nothing out of the ordinary happens. The trick is not to answer the question with an immediate "Of course I am not dreaming!". Come up with a consistent way to check if you are awake or asleep. For example, checking the time on a clock and then quickly check it again. If you are dreaming, the time will always dramatically change at the second glance. Or, if you are reading something, look away and then read it again. Again, if you dreaming, whatever you are reading will be completely different when you look at it the second time. As you keep asking yourself this question during the day, the question will become second nature. Eventually, you will automatically ask the question in your dreams. When you do your check to see if you are awake or asleep, you are well on your way to lucidity.
2. Utilize a counting method to enter lucidity. As you are laying down to go to sleep, start counting. One, I am dreaming. Two, I am dreaming. Three, I am dreaming. At some point, you will say, fifty-one, I am dreaming, and by then you are really dreaming.
3. Identify your dream signals. These are objects, images or actions in your dream that serve as cues or markers to let you know that you are dreaming. Anything can be a dream signal and is unique to each individual dreamer. It may help to read through your dream journal and select an image that constantly appears in your dreams. By selecting a recurring image, then it has a better chance of appearing in your future dreams. When you are ready for bed, tell yourself that "when I see an apple, then I know I am dreaming." or whatever dream signal you have chosen.
4. Use your dream signs to let you know that you are dreaming. When an anomaly or something impossible occurs in your dream, do not ignore it or try to rationalize it. Let this odd occurrence be an indicator that you are dreaming. Some common dream signs include flying, walking through walls or the appearance of someone who is dead in real life.
5. Finally, encourage your lucid dreams, but do not force them, as your efforts may have an opposite effect. You may use the above techniques in conjunction with one another. Tell yourself that you will have a lucid dream tonight. It is important to relax and be patient. As you improve your lucid dreaming, you can even learn to "write" your own dream scripts. Your sense of smell and touch will become heightened. Before going to bed, tell yourself what you want to dream and what area you want to explore. Source(s): http://dreammoods.com/